CeMAP® Module 2 - Mortgages (MORT) Questions in this Pool cover the below Exam Outline:


Syllabus covered in Killexams Q&As of CeMAP 2



Detailed Contents Covered in Killexams Questions and Answers


  1. Understanding the Mortgage Process


  2. Regulatory Framework and Compliance


  3. Mortgage Products and Features


  4. Assessing Client Needs


  5. Application Process and Documentation


  6. Valuation and Security


  7. Post-Completion Considerations


  8. Ethical and Professional Standards



BELOW ARE SOME EXAMPLE QUESTIONS TAKEN FROM FULL VERSION OF DOCUMENT. REGISTER TO DOWNLOAD PREMIUM PDF CONTAINING FULL VERSION OF QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Question: 77

When a lender performs a "desktop valuation," what are they primarily assessing?


  1. The condition of the property

  2. The market value based on recent sales data

  3. The borrower’s creditworthiness

  4. The property’s compliance with building regulations Answer: B

Explanation: A desktop valuation involves assessing the market value of a property based on recent sales data and market trends, often without a physical inspection of the property.


Question: 78

A borrower takes a discounted-rate repayment mortgage with an interest rate of 3% (discounted from 5%) for a loan amount of £200,000 over 25 years. What is the initial monthly payment?


A. £948.10 B. £850.00 C. £1,000.00 D. £1,050.00

Answer: A Explanation:

To calculate the initial monthly payment, we use the formula for a fixed-rate

mortgage:


Question: 79


Which of the following best describes a "first-time buyer" in mortgage terms?


  1. Someone who has owned property previously

  2. A borrower purchasing a property to rent

  3. An individual buying their first home

  4. A borrower using family inheritance to buy a home Answer: C

Explanation: A first-time buyer is defined as someone who has never owned residential property before, which qualifies them for specific mortgage products.


Question: 80

Which of the following accreditation schemes is specifically designed for modular homes?


  1. ISO 9001

  2. BOPAS

  3. Energy Star

  4. FMB


Answer: B


Explanation: BOPAS (Build Offsite Property Assurance Scheme) is specifically tailored for offsite and modular construction, providing assurance regarding the quality and longevity of such homes.


Question: 81

Which of the following is NOT a requirement under the Mortgage Market Review (MMR)?


  1. Conducting thorough affordability assessments.

  2. Providing a minimum of two mortgage options to the borrower.

  3. Ensuring borrowers receive clear information about their options.

  4. Assessing the risks of lending to the borrower. Answer: B

Explanation: While MMR requires clear communication and thorough assessments, it does not mandate that lenders provide a specific number of options to borrowers.


Question: 82

Which of the following best describes a "building scheme"?


  1. A plan for constructing roads.

  2. A set of restrictive covenants applied to a development.

  3. A type of easement.

  4. A financial plan for property development. Answer: B

Explanation: A building scheme refers to a group of restrictive covenants that apply to a particular development to maintain uniformity and property values.


Question: 83

If a buyer has an offer accepted for a property worth £600,000 and provides a deposit of £120,000, what is the mortgage amount required?


A. £480,000 B. £500,000 C. £520,000 D. £450,000


Answer: A


Explanation: The mortgage amount needed is calculated by subtracting the deposit from the property value: £600,000 - £120,000 = £480,000.


Question: 84

Which of the following is a characteristic of a 'fixed-rate mortgage'?


  1. The interest rate can change periodically.

  2. Monthly payments remain consistent for the entire term.

  3. It is typically more expensive than a variable-rate mortgage. Answer: B

Explanation: A fixed-rate mortgage locks in the interest rate for the entire term, providing borrowers with consistent monthly payments and protection from interest rate fluctuations.


Question: 85

If a homeowner's claim is denied under the Buildmark scheme, what is the recommended next step?


  1. Accept the denial without question.

  2. Request a review of the decision from the warranty provider.

  3. Immediately seek legal action.

  4. Attempt to fix the defect independently. Answer: B

Explanation: If a claim is denied, the homeowner should request a review of the decision from the warranty provider to clarify the reasons for denial and explore potential options.


Question: 86

Which organization oversees the regulation of consumer credit activities in addition to mortgage regulation?


  1. The Bank of England

  2. The Prudential Regulation Authority

  3. The Financial Ombudsman Service

  4. The Financial Conduct Authority Answer: D

Explanation: The Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) oversees both consumer credit and mortgage regulation to ensure consumer protection.

Question: 87

What is the maximum loan-to-value (LTV) ratio typically permitted by lenders for residential mortgages?


  1. 50%

  2. 75%

  3. 90%

  4. 95%

  5. 100%


Answer: D


Explanation: While many lenders offer loans up to 95% LTV, this means the borrower must provide a 5% deposit. Some may even allow 100% LTV mortgages under specific conditions, though these are rare and often associated with higher risks.


Question: 88


What is the primary reason for lenders to require a deposit from borrowers?


  1. To reduce the lender's workload.

  2. To establish borrower commitment.

  3. To increase property values. Answer: B

Explanation: A deposit indicates a borrower’s commitment and financial stability, reducing the lender's risk by ensuring the borrower has a financial stake in the property.

Question: 3671

What might a leaseholder be required to pay as part of the lease extension process, aside from the premium?


  1. Legal fees and valuation costs

  2. Maintenance costs for the property

  3. Increased ground rent

  4. A fee for listing the property Answer: A

Explanation: In addition to the premium for extending the lease, leaseholders are typically responsible for legal fees and valuation costs, which are necessary for the process.


Question: 3672

Under which circumstances might a lender consider a mortgage application as "sub-prime"?


  1. When the applicant has a high credit score.

  2. When the applicant has a low credit score.

  3. When the applicant is self-employed. Answer: B

Explanation: A mortgage application is considered "sub-prime" when the applicant has a low credit score or poor credit history, indicating a higher risk of default. Lenders may offer higher interest rates to compensate for this risk.


Question: 3673

When calculating the total cost of a mortgage, which of the following is NOT typically included?

  1. Interest payments

  2. Arrangement fees

  3. Property taxes

  4. Insurance premiums Answer: C

Explanation: The total cost of a mortgage typically includes interest payments and arrangement fees but does not usually include property taxes, which are separate expenses.


Question: 3674

If a borrower has a bridging loan of £400,000 with a completion fee of 3% and an interest rate of 1.8% per month, what will the total initial costs be, excluding interest for the first month?


A. £12,000 B. £15,000 C. £10,800


Answer: B


Explanation: Total Initial Costs = Completion Fee = £400,000 × 0.03 =

£12,000. The interest for the first month is £400,000 × 0.018 = £7,200, so total initial costs including first month's interest = £12,000 + £7,200 = £19,200.


Question: 3675

In a situation where multiple buyers are interested in a property, how can an undertaking influence the decision?


  1. It eliminates competition.

  2. It can demonstrate the buyer's commitment to repairs.

  3. It reduces the property's value.

  4. It automatically secures the mortgage. Answer: B

Explanation: An undertaking can demonstrate a buyer's commitment to addressing repairs, which may positively influence the seller's decision, showing that the buyer is serious about maintaining the property.


Question: 3676

What is usually required of a buyer at a property auction when their bid is successful?


  1. They must pay the full purchase price immediately.

  2. They must pay a deposit on the day of the auction.

  3. They have 14 days to secure financing. Answer: B

Explanation: Successful bidders at property auctions are typically required to pay a deposit (usually 10% of the purchase price) on the day of the auction, with the remainder due upon completion.


Question: 3677

Which of the following actions must a lender take if a borrower defaults on their mortgage payments?


  1. Offer a new mortgage product.

  2. Wait six months before taking any action.

  3. Issue a default notice.

  4. Automatically repossess the property.

Answer: C


Explanation: A lender must issue a default notice to the borrower before taking further action, such as repossession, ensuring the borrower is informed of their default.


Question: 3678

Which of the following best defines a 'tracker mortgage'?


  1. A mortgage with a fixed interest rate for a specific period.

  2. A mortgage that follows an index, such as the Bank of England base rate.

  3. A mortgage with no early repayment charges. Answer: B

Explanation: A tracker mortgage has an interest rate that is linked to an external index, often the Bank of England base rate, meaning payments will fluctuate as the index changes.


Question: 3679


Which of the following scenarios describes a "high-net-worth" borrower?


  1. A borrower with no savings

  2. A borrower with assets exceeding £1 million

  3. A first-time buyer with a small deposit

  4. A self-employed individual with fluctuating income Answer: B

Explanation: High-net-worth individuals typically have substantial assets, which can qualify them for specific mortgage products and services.

Question: 3680

Which of the following is NOT a typical liability for a freeholder?


  1. Property taxes.

  2. Mortgage repayments.

  3. Maintenance of common areas.

  4. Lease agreements with tenants. Answer: D

Explanation: Lease agreements are typically the responsibility of leaseholders, not freeholders, who own the entire property.


Question: 3681

What is the main purpose of the Key Facts Document provided to mortgage applicants?


  1. To outline the lender’s profit margins.

  2. To summarize key features and costs of the mortgage.

  3. To provide a legal contract for the mortgage.

  4. To offer financial advice tailored to the borrower. Answer: B

Explanation: The Key Facts Document is designed to summarize the key features, costs, and terms of the mortgage, ensuring that consumers have clear and concise information before proceeding.


Question: 3682


Which of the following best describes the term "equitable interest"?


  1. A legal right to occupy the property

  2. An interest that is not documented in the registers

  3. A right that can be enforced in a court of law

  4. A right of first refusal on the property Answer: B

Explanation: An equitable interest arises when a person has rights over a property that are not formally documented in the land registries, often due to agreements or trusts.


Question: 3683

A power of sale clause allows a lender to sell the property without court intervention in case of default. True or false?


  1. True

  2. False Answer: A

Explanation: A power of sale clause enables lenders to sell the secured property without needing to go through court proceedings if the borrower defaults.


Question: 3684

If a seller has previously received planning permission that has since lapsed, how should this be recorded on the seller's property information form?


  1. It doesn't need to be mentioned.

  2. It should be disclosed as a potential future opportunity.

  3. It should be listed as a current planning issue. Answer: A

Explanation: If planning permission has lapsed, it does not need to be disclosed since it is no longer applicable. However, any ongoing permission should be mentioned.


Question: 3685


Which of the following best describes a remortgager?


  1. A borrower purchasing their first home.

  2. A homeowner refinancing their existing mortgage.

  3. An investor buying rental properties.

  4. A borrower with a poor credit history. Answer: B

Explanation: A remortgager is a homeowner who refinances their existing mortgage, often to secure better rates or access equity in their property.


Question: 3686

Sarah has a mortgage of £200,000 with an interest rate of 3%. If she pays

£1,000 monthly, how much of her payment goes toward interest in the first month?


A. £400 B. £500 C. £600 D. £700


Answer: B


Explanation: The interest for the first month is calculated as £200,000 * (3% /

12) = £500. Thus, £500 of her first payment goes toward interest.

Question: 3687

What does "negative equity" indicate for a homeowner?


  1. The property value exceeds the mortgage balance

  2. The mortgage balance exceeds the property's market value

  3. The homeowner has significant equity in the property Answer: B

Explanation: Negative equity occurs when the outstanding mortgage balance is greater than the current market value of the property, which can limit the homeowner's options for selling or refinancing.


Question: 3688


What is a common characteristic of a fixed-rate mortgage?


  1. Interest rates fluctuate with the market.

  2. Monthly payments remain constant throughout the term.

  3. It typically has a shorter repayment term. Answer: B

Explanation: Fixed-rate mortgages offer stability by maintaining the same monthly payment for the entire loan term, regardless of market interest rate changes.


Question: 3689

If a borrower takes a bridging loan of £80,000 at an interest rate of 2.5% per month, what is the total interest payable after 3 months?


A. £4,800

B. £6,000 C. £7,200


Answer: C


Explanation: Total Interest = Principal × Rate × Time = £80,000 × 0.025 × 3 =

£6,000.


Question: 3690

If a buyer wishes to challenge a lender's retention decision, what is the most effective initial step?


  1. Contact the seller.

  2. Gather supporting evidence and documentation.

  3. Hire a lawyer immediately.

  4. Ignore the decision and proceed with the purchase. Answer: B

Explanation: Gathering supporting evidence and documentation can provide a solid foundation for challenging a lender's retention decision, allowing the buyer to present a case for reconsideration.


Question: 3691

If a borrower is facing a possession order, which of the following actions is least advisable?


  1. Engaging with the lender to discuss options.

  2. Seeking legal advice.

  3. Ignoring all correspondence from the lender. Answer: C

Explanation: Ignoring correspondence from the lender is least advisable as it can lead to further legal complications and hinder the borrower’s ability to negotiate or seek assistance regarding the possession order.


Question: 3692

Which type of mortgage is specifically designed for elderly borrowers looking to release equity from their home?


  1. Fixed-rate mortgage

  2. Tracker mortgage

  3. Lifetime mortgage

  4. Standard variable rate mortgage Answer: C

Explanation: A lifetime mortgage is designed for older borrowers, allowing them to release equity from their home while retaining ownership.


Question: 3693

What is a common feature of an offset mortgage?


  1. It allows for higher LTV ratios.

  2. It links savings to reduce the mortgage interest payable.

  3. It is only available for first-time buyers. Answer: B

Explanation: An offset mortgage links a borrower’s savings account to their mortgage, allowing them to reduce the amount of interest paid on the mortgage by offsetting it against their savings.


Question: 3694

A borrower’s age is a significant factor in determining their mortgage eligibility. True or False?


  1. True

  2. False Answer: B

Explanation: While age may impact some lenders' decisions, it is not a significant factor compared to income, credit score, and debt levels.