PSNCB-CANS Dumps

PSNCB-CANS Braindumps PSNCB-CANS Real Questions PSNCB-CANS Practice Test PSNCB-CANS Actual Questions


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Nursing


PSNCB-CANS


PSNCB Certified Aesthetic Nurse Specialist


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BELOW ARE SOME SAMPLE QUESTIONS. FULL VERSION CONTAINS COMPLETE QUESTION BANK.



ion: 896


statement best describes the biochemical role of poly-L-lactic acid in Sculptra and its effect rocess of the skin?


cts as a biostimulator by promoting collagen synthesis and improving skin texture. nhances moisture retention in the dermis.

unctions primarily as a filler without stimulating collagen. irectly replaces lost fat in the subcutaneous layer.


er: A


nation: Poly-L-lactic acid is a biostimulator that encourages the body to produce collagen ov mproving skin texture and volume as part of the aging process.


ion: 897


ssessing a patient's skin for potential treatment areas, what is the most critical aspect of the elated to vascularity?


ible capillaries or telangiectasia sence of fine lines

texture and thickness or and pigmentation

Quest


Which on the

aging p


  1. It a

  2. It e

  3. It f

  4. It d Answ

Expla er

time, i


Quest


When a skin

exam r


  1. Vis

  2. Pre

  3. Skin

  4. Col Answer: A

Explanation: Visible capillaries or telangiectasia can indicate underlying vascular issues, which are crucial to consider before administering treatments that may affect vascular integrity.


Question: 898


Which of the following scenarios would most likely require a discussion of alternative treatment options during the pre-treatment consultation?

  1. The patient is seeking a very specific outcome that is not achievable with the proposed treatment

  2. The patient expresses dissatisfaction with their previous results from a similar procedure

  3. The patient is excited about the treatment and does not ask questions

  4. The patient has a family member who had a successful treatment Answer: A

Explanation: If the patient seeks an unattainable outcome, it is essential to discuss alternative options to align their expectations with feasible results and ensure patient satisfaction.


ion: 899


ole does the "thermal relaxation time" play in the effectiveness of fractional laser treatments ularly with CO2 lasers?


etermines the optimal pulse duration to minimize thermal injury. ictates the duration of the cooling phase post-treatment. nfluences the post-treatment erythema response.

ets the interval between laser passes for maximum efficacy. er: A

nation: Thermal relaxation time is crucial in determining the optimal pulse duration, ensuring ated area cools adequately to minimize thermal injury to surrounding tissues.


ion: 900


inical study comparing patient satisfaction among users of Dysport and Botox, it was found reported varying degrees of satisfaction based on onset time and duration. What is a critica hat might explain the differences in patient satisfaction between these two products?

different diffusion properties of Dysport may affect the aesthetic outcomes in larger treatm sport is less effective than Botox and hence has lower satisfaction rates.

ox's formulation causes it to last longer in the body compared to Dysport.

Quest


What r ,

partic


  1. It d

  2. It d

  3. It i

  4. It s Answ

Expla that

the tre


Quest


In a cl that

patients l

factor t


  1. The ent

    areas.

  2. Dy

  3. Bot

  4. Patient familiarity with Botox leads to higher satisfaction regardless of outcomes. Answer: A

Explanation: The differing diffusion properties of Dysport can lead to varying aesthetic outcomes, particularly in larger areas, which may impact overall patient satisfaction.

postoperative complications?


  1. Allergies to medications

  2. Family history of chronic illnesses

  3. Previous surgical experiences

  4. Current exercise regimen Answer: C


ion: 902

ontext of laser hair removal, what role does the skin's melanin content play in treatment eff gher melanin content improves laser absorption.

wer melanin content increases treatment pain.

her melanin content can increase the risk of burns. lanin content does not affect treatment outcomes.


er: C


nation: Higher melanin content in the skin can increase the risk of burns during laser hair re ents due to greater absorption of laser energy, necessitating careful consideration of treatmen eters.


ion: 903


year-old patient with a significant history of cardiovascular disease wants to undergo aestheti ent. What assessment should you prioritize to ensure their safety?


eir previous experiences with cosmetic procedures eir pain tolerance and bruising history

horough cardiovascular evaluation and clearance eir social life and upcoming events

Explanation: Previous surgical experiences can provide critical insights into how a patient may respond to anesthesia, healing, and any potential complications that could arise during recovery.


Quest


In the c icacy?


  1. Hi

  2. Lo

  3. Hig

  4. Me


Answ


Expla moval

treatm t

param


Quest


A 60- c

treatm


  1. Th

  2. Th

  3. A t

  4. Th


Answer: C


Explanation: For patients with significant cardiovascular issues, obtaining a thorough cardiovascular evaluation and clearance from their healthcare provider is essential to ensure their safety during and after the procedure.

cosmetic procedures, providing the fastest onset of action?


  1. Lidocaine

  2. Benzocaine

  3. Tetracaine

  4. EMLA cream Answer: A


ion: 905


of the following should be avoided in the pre-treatment phase for clients planning to underg eel to minimize complications?


of the above exposure antibiotics

of topical retinoids er: A

nation: All of these factors should be avoided prior to a TCA peel to minimize the risk of ications such as irritation, uneven peeling, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation.


ion: 906


paring for a Sculptra (Valeant) treatment, what pre-procedure advice should a nurse provide optimal results?


sure skin is well-hydrated but not moisturized on the day of treatment. oid all medications for two weeks prior.

continue smoking for one week before treatment. oid high-intensity workouts one week prior.

Explanation: Lidocaine has a rapid onset of action, making it the most effective topical anesthetic for use prior to procedures involving needle insertion.


Quest


Which o a

TCA p


  1. All

  2. Sun

  3. Oral

  4. Use Answ

Expla compl


Quest


In pre to

ensure


  1. En

  2. Av

  3. Dis

  4. Av


Answer: A


Explanation: Proper hydration is essential for the skin's response to Sculptra, while avoiding moisturizers right before treatment can help with injection accuracy.


Question: 907


When evaluating a patient’s overall health prior to an aesthetic procedure, which of the following conditions should be considered a contraindication for certain treatments?

  1. Controlled hypertension

  2. Well-managed diabetes

  3. Active infection at the treatment site

  4. Mild anxiety Answer: C

Explanation: An active infection at the treatment site poses a direct risk for complications and should be addressed before proceeding with any aesthetic procedure.


ion: 908


ounseling a patient on the use of topical retinoids, which of the following side effects shoul size as a common initial response to treatment?


reased moisture retention dness and peeling perpigmentation

manent skin thinning er: B

nation: Redness and peeling are common initial side effects of topical retinoids as the skin ad ctive ingredient, typically resolving with continued use.


ion: 909


ontext of laser treatments, what is the primary purpose of utilizing a cooling device during ure?


inimize patient discomfort and protect the epidermis nhance the efficacy of the laser treatment

educe the overall treatment time

mprove the aesthetic results of the treatment

Quest


When c d you

empha


  1. Inc

  2. Re

  3. Hy

  4. Per Answ

Expla justs

to the a


Quest


In the c the

proced


  1. To m

  2. To e

  3. To r

  4. To i Answer: A

Explanation: The primary purpose of utilizing a cooling device is to minimize patient discomfort and protect the epidermis from thermal injury during laser procedures.


Question: 910


What is the primary mechanism by which neurotoxins like Botox, Dysport, and Xeomin exert their effects on dynamic wrinkles?

  1. Inhibition of collagen synthesis

  2. Temporary paralysis of targeted muscles

  3. Stimulation of blood flow to the area

  4. Reduction of skin oil production Answer: B

Explanation: Neurotoxins exert their effects by temporarily paralyzing targeted muscles, which reduces the movement that contributes to the formation of dynamic wrinkles.



patient expresses concerns about bruising after an aesthetic procedure, which of the follow ost effective response?


ou will likely bruise, but it will go away quickly." uising is uncommon; you probably won't experience it."

can minimize bruising by avoiding certain medications."

ou should prepare for significant bruising after this treatment." er: C

nation: Offering strategies to minimize bruising through medication management empowers the and sets realistic expectations for their recovery.


ion: 912


onsidering the properties of various hyaluronic acid fillers, which of the following statemen tely describes the differences in cross-linking technology among Restylane, Perlane, and Juv cts?


ederm utilizes a non-animal-based cross-linking technology, while Restylane and Perlane us

-derived HA.

lane is designed for deeper injections with less cross-linking than Restylane-L, leading to a more feel.

tylane products have a higher degree of cross-linking compared to Juvederm Ultra, resulting

Question: 911


When a ing is

the m


  1. "Y

  2. "Br

  3. "We

  4. "Y

Answ Expla

patient


Quest


When c ts

accura ederm

produ


  1. Juv e

    animal

  2. Per natural

  3. Res in

    longer-lasting effects.

  4. All Juvederm products have identical cross-linking technologies, resulting in similar clinical outcomes.


Answer: C


Explanation: Restylane products utilize a higher degree of cross-linking, which contributes to their durability and longevity compared to Juvederm Ultra. This technology allows for targeted tissue integration.

Question: 913


In the event of an unexpected allergic reaction during a botulinum toxin injection, which of the following should be prioritized in your immediate response?


  1. Administering an antihistamine and monitoring the patient

  2. Applying a cold compress to the injection site

  3. Quickly assessing the patient's vital signs and calling for emergency assistance


    nation: Quickly assessing the patient's vital signs and calling for emergency assistance is cru ing an unexpected allergic reaction, as it can escalate rapidly and require immediate medical ention.


    ion: 914


    of the following is the preferred method for ensuring that a patient fully understands the tre s, risks, and aftercare instructions?


    ying on a standard script for all patients

    viding only verbal instructions and assuming the patient will remember

    lizing a combination of verbal explanations, visual aids, and personalized written materials cussing the information briefly during the treatment session


    er: C


    nation: A combination of verbal explanations, visual aids, and personalized written materials ces patient understanding and retention of information regarding their treatment.


    ion: 915

    the primary rationale for utilizing multiple passes during fractional CO2 laser treatments? chieve a more uniform treatment effect

    Documenting the reaction before taking further action Answer: C

Expla cial in

manag interv


Quest


Which atment

proces


  1. Rel

  2. Pro

  3. Uti

  4. Dis Answ

Expla enhan


Quest


What is


  1. To a

  2. To enhance patient comfort

  3. To minimize downtime and side effects

  4. To reduce overall treatment time Answer: A

Explanation: Multiple passes can improve the uniformity of the treatment effect, ensuring comprehensive coverage of the targeted areas.


Question: 916

A nurse is explaining the risks associated with permanent fillers like Artefill (Suneva) to a patient. What is a critical point to emphasize regarding long-term outcomes?


  1. Permanent fillers are completely reversible.

  2. Long-term complications can arise, including granulomas.

  3. They are less likely to cause allergic reactions than temporary fillers.

  4. They require annual maintenance treatments. Answer: B

nation: Permanent fillers pose a risk for long-term complications such as granulomas, which us concern for patients considering this option.


ion: 917


ssessing a patient for aesthetic treatment, how can you effectively gauge their understandin ks associated with neurotoxin injections?


cuss the procedure and ask them to summarize the risks vide a brochure detailing the risks

them if they have any concerns

orm them that all treatments carry some risk er: A

nation: Engaging the patient in a discussion where they can summarize their understanding o they have comprehended the information provided.


ion: 918


ent undergoing a superficial peel with AHA asks about the expected downtime. What should tic nurse explain regarding the recovery time and post-procedure care?


A peels typically result in minimal downtime, with any redness subsiding within a few hour nd sun protection is essential.

Expla can be

a serio


Quest


When a g of

the ris


  1. Dis

  2. Pro

  3. Ask

  4. Inf Answ

Expla f risks

ensures


Quest


A pati the

aesthe


  1. AH s to

    days, a

  2. AHA peels require significant downtime, and patients should avoid all activities for at least two weeks.

  3. Recovery from an AHA peel can take several weeks, and patients should expect to have a peeling phase lasting up to a month.

  4. AHA peels have no downtime, and patients can resume normal activities immediately without any precautions.


Answer: A


Explanation: AHA peels usually result in minimal downtime, with redness subsiding within hours to

days, and it is crucial to emphasize the importance of sun protection post-procedure.


Question: 919


What key information should be included in the documentation of post-treatment outcomes to ensure comprehensive care continuity?


  1. Only the patient's initial complaints before treatment

  2. A detailed account of both the treatment performed and the patient's recovery trajectory

  3. The nurse's personal opinions about the patient's progress


    er: B


    nation: A detailed account of both the treatment performed and the patient's recovery trajecto comprehensive care continuity, providing valuable information for future assessments and

    entions.

    The results of any unrelated medical tests performed during the visit Answ

Expla ry

ensures interv