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Nursing


WHNP-BC


NCC Womens Health Care Nurse Practitioner


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Question: 1



ombined oral contraceptive pill opper intrauterine device (IUD)

evonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (IUD) wer: C

anation: Adenomyosis is a condition characterized by the presence of metrial tissue within the myometrium of the uterus, which can lead to

heavy menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea. In this patient, the most opriate contraceptive method would be a levonorgestrel-releasing uterine device (IUD). The levonorgestrel-releasing IUD provides effe aception while also reducing menstrual bleeding and symptoms assoc

denomyosis. The combined oral contraceptive pill may provide som of symptoms but is not as effective in managing heavy menstrual

ding associated with adenomyosis. The copper IUD does not have the on reducing menstrual bleeding and may actually worsen symptoms atient.

A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea. She desires contraception. The nurse practitioner suspects adenomyosis based on the patient's history and examination findings. Which of the following contraceptive methods would be most appropriate for this patient?


  1. C

  2. C

  3. L

Ans Expl

endo


appr

intra ctive

contr iated

with a e

relief

blee same

effect in

this p


Question: 2


A 36-year-old pregnant woman presents to the clinic at 32 weeks gestation. She has a history of gestational diabetes in a previous pregnancy. Which of the following screening tests should be performed to assess for gestational diabetes in this patient?

  1. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1A. test

  2. Fasting plasma glucose (FPG)

  3. Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) Answer: C

lucose tolerance test (OGTT). The OGTT involves measuring fasting glucose levels followed by administration of a glucose drink and

equent blood glucose measurements at specific time intervals. The fas ma glucose (FPG) and glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) tests are not fic screening tests for gestational diabetes.


stion: 3


-year-old pregnant woman presents to the clinic for a prenatal visit at ks gestation. Which of the following assessments would be most opriate to evaluate fetal well-being?


iophysical profile (BPP) onstress test (NST)

lpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening


wer: A

Explanation: In a pregnant woman with a history of gestational diabetes in a previous pregnancy, the appropriate screening test for gestational diabetes is the oral g

blood

subs ting

plas speci


Que

A 28 20

wee appr


  1. B

  2. N

  3. A


Ans


Explanation: To evaluate fetal well-being at 20 weeks gestation, the most appropriate assessment would be a biophysical profile (BPP). The BPP combines ultrasound evaluation of fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and assessment of fetal heart rate patterns. The nonstress test (NST) is typically performed in the third trimester to assess fetal well-being. Alpha- fetoprotein (AFP) screening is a prenatal screening test for neural tube defects

and chromosomal abnormalities and is not specifically used to evaluate fetal well-being.


Question: 4


ld the nurse practitioner take?


valuate for other causes of decreased libido and vaginal dryness ecommend using a vaginal moisturizer for symptom relief ecommend switching to a combined hormonal contraceptive method


wer: A


anation: Decreased libido and vaginal dryness can be potential side ef levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (IUD). In this case, the n

itioner should evaluate for other potential causes of these symptoms, s ormonal imbalances or underlying medical conditions. Switching to a bined hormonal contraceptive method may not necessarily resolve the ptoms, and using a vaginal moisturizer would only provide temporary out addressing the underlying cause.


stion: 5

A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of decreased libido and vaginal dryness. She is currently using a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. Which of the following actions shou


  1. E

  2. R

  3. R


Ans


Expl fects

of the urse

pract uch

as h com

sym relief

with


Que


A 35-year-old woman presents for her routine gynecologic examination. She is interested in using a non-hormonal contraceptive method. She has no contraindications to using an intrauterine device (IUD). Which of the following statements regarding the copper IUD is correct?


  1. It primarily works by inhibiting ovulation

  2. It can be used as a long-term contraceptive option for up to 10 years

  3. It is associated with an increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) Answer: B

od and does not increase the risk of PID when properly inserted and aged.


stion: 6


-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a routine gynecologic mination. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmo olism (PE). Which of the following contraceptive methods should be ded in this patient?


ombined oral contraceptive pill rogestin-only pill

opper intrauterine device (IUD)


wer: A


anation: In a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) an

Explanation: The correct statement regarding the copper IUD (ParaGard) is that it can be used as a long-term contraceptive option for up to 10 years. The copper IUD does not inhibit ovulation; instead, it works by creating a spermicidal environment in the uterus. It is a highly effective contraceptive meth

man


Que


A 24

exa nary

emb avoi


  1. C

  2. P

  3. C


Ans


Expl d

pulmonary embolism (PE), the combined oral contraceptive pill should be avoided. The estrogen component of the combined pill increases the risk of thromboembolic events. The progestin-only pill and copper IUD can be considered as contraceptive options in this patient as they do not carry the same risk of thromboembolism.

A 28-year-old sexually active woman presents to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected intercourse 48 hours ago. She has a history of migraines with aura. Which of the following emergency contraception methods is contraindicated in this patient?


  1. Levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive pill

    opper intrauterine device (IUD)


    wer: B


    anation: In a patient with a history of migraines with aura, ulipristal a gency contraceptive pill is contraindicated. Ulipristal acetate is a sele esterone receptor modulator and is contraindicated in individuals with ry of cerebrovascular disease, including migraines with aura. In this c atient should be offered the levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive p opper IUD as alternative methods of emergency contraception.


    stion: 8


    -year-old woman with a history of multiple sexual partners presents t for a routine gynecologic examination. She requests a contraceptive od that providesprotection against sexually transmitted infections (ST ch of the following contraceptive methods would be most appropriate

  2. Ulipristal acetate emergency contraceptive pill

  3. C


Ans


Expl cetate

emer ctive

prog a

histo ase,

the p ill or

the c


Que


A 32 o the

clinic

meth Is).

Whi for

this patient?


  1. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (IUD)

  2. Combined oral contraceptive pill

  3. Condoms

Explanation: In a patient who desires protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the most appropriate contraceptive method would be condoms. Condoms provide a physical barrier and can help reduce the risk of STI transmission. The combined oral contraceptive pill and levonorgestrel- releasing IUD do not provide protection against STIs.